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Thread: There are no 'constitutional' rights

  1. #46
    Senior Member Hilbert's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by bryanleu2002 View Post
    Thanks for the welcome back! my desktop crapped out!!

    the word inalienable or self evident are not written in all three of the doc's .

    However the word democracy is not written once in all three...

    yet that's what we are? how? ...

    If democracy came to be pragmaticly , then cant self evident come about the same way.....

    Bryan

    "...endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable rights..." - Declaration of Independence.

    Your correct, Democracy is not written in the Constitution once; and, the United States is not a democracy, it is a Constitutional Republic, the so called "indirect democracy," a grand experiment, not all unlike the Soviet Union actually excluding the fact that one collapsed and the other hasn't. As terrified as they were of government, the founding fathers sought to create the very thing they had fought to get away from and feared most: government. In this case, a new type of government, one that would have strong central power (Federal) and yet would protect and safeguard the rights of the individual. And, to achieve this, they created a mixed policy, drawing upon aspects of countless different political theories and forms of government including Baron De Montesque (Separation of Powers), John Locke, Aristotle, ad numerous others...

  2. #47
    Garand Member Ought Six's Avatar
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    AC:
    "Wait... where is Ought Six getting the notion that the US Constitution limits the authority of the government to restrict rights granted under natural law?"
    First, "granted under natural law" is an incorrect view. Inalienable rights simply exist. Natural law is a description of those rights.

    Second, I said the Bill of Rights limits the authority of the government to infringe upon our inalienable rights. The main body of the Constitution is a charter of government; a document describing its structure and enumerated powers. It generally does not refer to rights.

    As for "where I got the idea", I got it from reading the document. It is quite plain. "The government shall not infringe...." is the most common sort of declaration in the BoR. What else did you think it means?
    ----------
    "Yes many of the founders operated under the legal assumption that there is a set of natural laws - but they left the "discovery" of the natural law to the governmental process (legislatures can legislate, executives participate in the legislative process & judges interpret/reinterpret common law). They didn't try to set in stone their particular interpretation of natural law."
    The Bill of Rights does not do that? I think you are obviously wrong here. If you want to say that government was supposed to fill in the details, then I would agree with you. But the basic rights; the right to live, self-defense, property rights, self-determination; these were certainly set in stone, and the Founders clearly say so in their writings.
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    "The US government was created to be a democratic republic - that ultimately encouraged positivism. If the founders truly believed that natural law is set in stone & their interpretation of it is correct - they would have penned it."
    They did. Read their writings.
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    "Even if we ignore the less interpreted 2nd Amendment - I think one can find rights expressly created by the bill of rights."
    Documents and agreements do not create inalienable rights. If you believe they do, then with respect, you do not understand what an inalienable right is.
    ----------
    "The 3rd Amendment - property owners cannot be forced to quarter soldiers during time of peace. Assuming Ought Six believes that natural law gives rights & the constitution restricts the government from alienating those rights - point to one authority of natural law that gives rise to the notion that property owners have an ultimate right to exclude soldiers during times of peace from their property.

    "I think it is rather absurd for the founders to say natural law gives property owners the right to exclude, but then only decided to protect that right against the quartering of soldiers."
    You are creating a false logical construct here. Just because the Third Amendment address one very particular ill of the time perpetrated by the British does not in any way modify or change the general inalienable right to keep and control your own property.
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    "Just find a legal authority that says property ownership & the right of total exclusion of soldiers is a natural right."
    Basic property rights are a fundamental tenet of natural law. The natural law author that most influenced the Founders, John Locke, expounded upon this constantly. This is also expounded upon extensively by all the prominent Founders and in the Federalist Papers. The Federalist Papers and the writings of the Founders have been long accepted by the Supreme Court as admissible evidence going to the intent of the Founders in arguments in front of that court. I am quite suprised you seem unaware of this.
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    "And explain why if natural law gives those rights of total right to exclude, why didn't the framers write the 3rd Amendment to give a property owner the right exclude government health inspectors from inspecting the conditions of migrant farm labor. Because the Ought Six's argument essentially says that framers intended to protect natural law given rights from the government - but seem to only protect the property owner from the 1) quartering of 2) soldiers."
    We are back to the same false logical construct; that addressing a specific item somehow denigrates the parts of the underlying principle not specifically addressed. The Ninth Amendment is quite clear in putting the lie to this idea. Most of the rest of your post is just more of the same.
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    "Maybe I'm missing something. But if we amended the constitution to say - "this constitution gives non-alien natural persons the right to food and water," doesn't that give all citizens the right to food and water? Viola - the constitution just created a right."
    Nope. It enumerated a preexisitng inalienable right derived from the right to live.

  3. #48
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    I find it interesting that NONE of the textualists or originalists on the supreme court believe that the US Constitutional makes natural law part of US law.

    The federalist papers? They are used to provide contextual understanding of the US federal constitution - but the federalist papers are not by themselves law, and the framer's personal understanding of morality? Not law.

    In addition, there is no general inalienable natural law right to keep your property. Locke's interpretation of natural law is his interpretation. Communists legal theorists often have no problem with private property as long as the property is self-created & self-earned. But in our example concerning land - no one creates land. Claiming that because Locke says private property right is natural law and therefore it is natural law doesn't add any credit to your assertion that natural law gives persons rights in the United States.

    The land predates human existence - predates human conceptualization of morality, social structure, or religion. If natural law gives a person inalienable rights, did that natural law pop out of no where when humans reached a level of intelligence? When we suddenly thought of philosophy, society, and law?

    Natural law assumes there is some sort of overarching law that is universally binding. If this "natural law" grants humans "rights" - then why does natural law not cover other life? I don't recall ever reading a piece of natural law theory that says the buffalo herd living on the untamed wild have some sort of natural right to graze or live.

    If we amended the US constitution to remove the takings clause - the government can and will take your property without compensation.

    I must say I've never met a natural law legal theorist in the practice or the courts. You obviously hold a very unique interpretation. If you really want to spend more time on this - please direct me to the specific citation of the writings you're pointing to. It'll also be helpful for discussion of you provided, in one sentence or two, defining ONE natural law right.

    Like I've said above - many of the framers believed in natural law. Justice Scalia, who is a staunch positivist, believes there is a natural law - but Scalia, like many of the framers believed also that one's perception of what is "natural law" is not perfect & therefore did not dare to codify natural law.

    You may sincerely believe there exists a natural law which grants you "inalienable rights" - but when the legislature passes a law contrary to these "inalienable rights", when the executive enforces the laws, and the courts apply the common law, statutes, and the constitution - unless the court has interpreted the right to exist under the common law tradition or protected by the constitution, good luck, you're just talking academic theories of "natural law."

    BTW... I'll recommend looking at the canon against redundancy, . For example, if a law writing body says "we grant you the express right to attend 1st grade, 2nd grade, 3rd grade, 7th grade, 8th grade, 9th grade."

    Accepting your premise that an underlying principle/right not specifically addressed (in this case, the express right to attend 4th-6th grade) does not derogate from the "natural law" would make the law redundant.

    Ultimately, what you're saying is that the US Constitution is redundant? Because somehow there exists another body of law, unwritten and not necessary part of our common law tradition, that is even higher in authority than the constitution?

    Last edited by Andrew Chalmers; 03-14-2008 at 02:02 AM.

  4. #49
    Garand Member Ought Six's Avatar
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    "Upon this law, depend the natural rights of mankind, the supreme being gave existence to man, together with the means of preserving and beautifying that existence. He endowed him with rational faculties, by the help of which, to discern and pursue such things, as were consistent with his duty and interest, and invested him with an inviolable right to personal liberty and personal safety.

    "Hence, in a state of nature, no man has any moral power to deprive another of his life, limbs, property, or liberty; nor the least authority to command, or exact obedience from him....

    "Hence also, the origin of all civil government, justly established, must be a voluntary compact, between the rulers and the ruled; and must be liable to such limitations, as are necessary for the security of the absolute rights of the latter; for what original title can any man or set of men have, to govern others, except their own consent? To usurp dominion over a people, in their own despite, or to grasp at more extensive power than they are willing to entrust, is to violate that law of nature, which gives every man the right to his personal liberty; and can, therefore, confer no obligation to obedience."

    "When human laws contradict or discountenance the means, which are necessary to preserve the essential rights of any society, they defeat the roper end of all laws, and so become null and void."
    -- Alexander Hamilton --


    “The natural liberty of man is to be free from any superior power on Earth, and not to be under the will or legislative authority of man, but only to have the law of nature for his rule.”
    -- Samuel Adams --

  5. #50
    Anal Smuggler Power_serj's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Kaplanr View Post
    How do you arrive at that? Following your reasoning, the Confederate States would have been better off taking the Federal Gov't to court rather than firing on Ft. Sumter and engaging in (in the opinion of the Union) armed rebellion. They might have been able to prove existance of a tyranny using that interpretation of the 2nd Amendment.

    Are there any reputable legal or Constitutional scholars that promote that interpretartion; any case law?
    What are you talkin about? Stop trying to play off the fact that you're wrong! Just admit it! How would there be any case? When has the Supreme Court ruled in favor of armed rebellion? Don't be rediculous.

    Common sense clearly says that the purpose of the 2nd Amendment is to fight against tyranny.

    The Second Amendment states, " A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed. "

    Why would a militia (armed citizens) be necessary to the security of a free state if it could not overthrow it's tyrannical government? Use logical reasoning, and common sense and you will see that the 2nd Amendment states that THE PURPOSE, YES, THE PURPOSE of the 2nd Amendment is for the people to overthrow a tyrannical government. If that's not the purpose, than what is the purpose to bear arms? Please enlighten me!

    (Please don't tell me it's against foreign invaders, because these Bill of Rights are to preserve rights so that our government doesn't become too powerful. Plus there are militaries to protect against foreign invaders. So don't even claim that.)

    The Founding Fathers wanted to make sure that Americans were not subject to rule without representation, like had happened under the English monarchy. Remember, militia fought tyranny, and gave us this free state, and the Founding Fathers wanted to preserve it! I don't need a scholar to tell me that!

  6. #51
    Senior Member hank's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Power_serj View Post
    Use logical reasoning, and common sense and you will see that the 2nd Amendment states that THE PURPOSE, YES, THE PURPOSE of the 2nd Amendment is for the people to overthrow a tyrannical government. If that's not the purpose, than what is the purpose to bear arms? Please enlighten me!
    These arguments are pointless. Look, you may be right, but there is not "logic" to your statement. There is an illogical inferential leap from the 2nd A's words to the 2nd A authorizes armed rebellion. Study up on logic a bit. Your falling for the logical fallacy of ad hoc ergo propter hoc. Generally referred to as the mistake between necessity and sufficiency. Google it and you'll be able to figure it out.

    Remember that I'm not saying you are wrong, but you can't use "logic" to prove your point because you need that inferential leap.

    hank

  7. #52
    No Good Bloody Seppo California Joe's Avatar
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    All of this constitutional masturbation is interesting but can someone please simplify?

    The way I read it is, when you are born you have a God given right to breathe air, but if I'm stronger than you and decide you don't have that right and choke the sh*t out of you, that God given right you think is inalienable and granted to you by some esoteric "natural law" is all in your mind and you are dead.

  8. #53
    Senior Member hank's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by California Joe View Post
    All of this constitutional masturbation is interesting but can someone please simplify?

    The way I read it is, when you are born you have a God given right to breathe air, but if I'm stronger than you and decide you don't have that right and choke the sh*t out of you, that God given right you think is inalienable and granted to you by some esoteric "natural law" is all in your mind and you are dead.
    As usual, CJ distills all this into the quick soundbite and nails it. I need a brief writer and you are hired.

    hank

  9. #54
    Garand Member Ought Six's Avatar
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    CJ:

    Refer back to my eariler statement: the only rights you really have are the ones you fight for. None the less, the philosophy of the Founders; the philosophy that this nation is founded upon; is important for every citizen to understand, cherish and protect.

    ========================================================================

    One thing that may help clarify the concept of natural law.... Rights are not created by any document or agreement. They are inalienable and already exist. 'New' rights are merely found or discovered. You cannot create what already naturally exists.

  10. #55
    Senior Member hank's Avatar
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    This thread has gone too far. Did you just use the word "cherish?" That is out of bounds.

    hank

  11. #56
    Garand Member Ought Six's Avatar
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    Hank, if you are not careful I am going to revoke your right to eat maple-flavored breakfast sandwiches.... with extreme prejudice. Or did I finally find a right you actually hold to be inalienable?

  12. #57

    Default not dead yet

    I believe this thread is not dead yet!

    I believe that we (I) have the "dynamic human spirit". And I believe that no other "man" has authority over (myself) it. if this is not true , than that means that i belong to another human being.. thats Hyperbole..!
    Nobody can put a lean on any others life..


    "Jefferson took his division of rights into alienable and unalienable from Hutcheson, who made the distinction popular and important."[4] In the The 1776 United States Declaration of Independence, Thomas Jefferson famously condensed this to:
    "We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain inalienable Rights. . ." This was changed to unalienable by John Adams at the time of printing the Declaration.


    Now read this carefully! Off topic but worth the read..

    "A democracy is always temporary in nature; it simply cannot exist as a permanent form of government. A democracy will continue to exist up until the time that voters discover they can vote themselves generous gifts from the public treasury.

    From that moment on, the majority always vote for the candidates who promise the most benefits from the public treasury, with the result thatevery democracy will finally collapse due to loose fiscal policy, which is always followed by chaos."


    "The average age of the world's greatest civilizations from the
    beginning of history, has been about 200 years. During those
    200 years, those nations always progressed through the following
    sequence:

    1. From bondage to spiritual faith;
    2. From spiritual faith to great courage;
    3. From courage to liberty;
    4. From liberty to abundance;
    5. From abundance to complacency;
    6. From complacency to apathy;
    7. From apathy to dependence;
    8. From dependence back into bondage"
    Last edited by bryanleu2002; 03-15-2008 at 12:12 AM. Reason: puncuation

  13. #58
    Garand Member Ought Six's Avatar
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    History has not quite borne out that maxim just yet. And if a democracy (a republic, really) collapses, what is to say it will not simply be replaced with another democractic government?

  14. #59

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    Quote Originally Posted by Ought Six View Post
    History has not quite borne out that maxim just yet. And if a democracy (a republic, really) collapses, what is to say it will not simply be replaced with another democractic government?

    History dictates the future in a crude way.. There is nothing wrong with "democracy" as long as it stays(local) small..

  15. #60
    Senior Member hank's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Ought Six View Post
    Hank, if you are not careful I am going to revoke your right to eat maple-flavored breakfast sandwiches.... with extreme prejudice. Or did I finally find a right you actually hold to be inalienable?
    The right to use maple-flavoring in breakfast sandwiches is inalienable and thus not included in the BoR. I cherish that right almost daily.

    hank

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